How was Abraham Whistler still alive in Blade II?

  • At the end of Blade I, Whistler unambiguously committed suicide. The whole thing had a very dramatic tone to it. It is implied that he got tortured & bitten by the vampire attack squad right before. However, it’s not really definite that he was bitten. Why do i say that?
    • First off, Deacon Frost said himself he wouldn’t bite him (maybe the other subordinates did though disobeying Frost).
    • When Blade returned back to find Whistler all beaten up, he said “We can cure the wounds”. I believe this scene was overly dramatized by the production for the audience. Whistler replies that he’s “too far gone” and insists that Blade gives him his gun and we hear the gunshot in the background, implying that Whistler did in fact commit suicide. Remember, Blade’s gun had silver rounds, so no matter what he was at the time, human or vampire, he would die from it.
  • Now in Blade II, Whistler has come back to life somehow. Blade’s been chasing him through Russia, Romania and finally finds him in Prague, Czech Republic. Why would vampires go through all that trouble though for Whistler? Whistler only says that they enjoyed torturing him..

Now what i make up of all of this. The production simply wanted to make something up and they improvised as they went along. So they brought Whistler in the sequel, since he and Blade had a good chemistry and due to the first movie’s success. Still it’s very (too much i think) fake to see Whistler come up in this movie, since it was made completely clear that he killed himself in the first movie. It’s like forget anything that make sense in the world and just bring him back. And Blade II is a great movie, not a nonsense movie, so such a big plot-hole is just too big imo.

What did really happen? Am i missing something? If anybody knows, kindly let us know.

Is there an Abraham-Lorentz force for Gravity?

The Abraham-Lorentz force in Electromagnetism is the recoil a charge experiences as it accelerates due to own emission of radiation.

The Newtonian theory of gravity is identical to that of electrostatics. Admittedly, Newtonian gravity doesn’t have an analogue for the magnetism half of EM (as far as I’m aware), so I can’t necessarily prove the existence of waves / analyse radiation / derive Abraham-Lorentz.

However, modern gravity does have propagating waves in it. Do accelerating masses have an Abram-Lorentz-like force?

Why would the Chronicler change the offspring of Abraham to the offspring of Israel when quoting Psalm 105?

In the account of David bringing the Ark to Jerusalem, Chronicles states on that day David appointed Asaph to sing praises:

Then on that day David first appointed that thanksgiving be sung to the LORD by Asaph and his brothers. (1 Chronicles 16:7) [ESV]

What follows in Chronicles is a song, which, according to the JPS translators was taken from portions of Psalms 96, 105, and 106:1

1 Chronicles    Psalms
16:8-22         105:1-15
16:23-33        96:1-13
16:35-36        106:47-48

About this composition David Rothstein comments:

The exact relation between Chronicles and these psalms has been debated, though it is most likely that Chronicles had the book of Psalms more or less in the form we have it, and here copied out sections of psalms that were relevant to this occasion, and were popular among the Jews of his time.2

Psalm 105, which begins the passage in Chronicles, is seen as having a post-exilic audience:

Ps. 105: Like 78, 106, 135, and 136, this psalm invokes selected authoritative Torah traditions along with exegetical comments on them in praise of God. The main theme is God’s covenant with Abraham to give him the promised land. This covenant, a popular them in postexilic times (eg. Isa. 41.8, 51.2, 63.16; Neh. 9.7), was eternal and unconditional, and therefore still in effect despite the exile and the fact that Jews both in and outside the land of Israel lived under Persian rule. It provides encouragement and assurance to the postexilic audience (most likely those who had returned to the land of Israel) that they are entitled to the land of Israel by divine right. Vv. 1-15 are quoted in 1 Chron 16:8-22.3

The covenant with Abraham is included in Chronicles:

8 He remembers his covenant forever,
the word that he commanded, for a thousand generations,
9
the covenant that he made with Abraham,
his sworn promise to Isaac,
10
which he confirmed to Jacob as a statute,
to Israel as an everlasting covenant,
11
saying, “To you I will give the land of Canaan
as your portion for an inheritance.” (Psalm 105)

15 Remember his covenant forever,
the word that he commanded, for a thousand generations
16
the covenant that he made with Abraham,
his sworn promise to Isaac,
17
which he confirmed to Jacob as a statute,
to Israel as an everlasting covenant,
18
saying, “To you I will give the land of Canaan,
as your portion for an inheritance.” (1 Chronicles 16)

But before restating the covenant nearly verbatim, the Chronicler makes a change:

O offspring of Israel his servant,
children of Jacob, his chosen ones! (1 Chronicles 16:13)

O offspring of Abraham, his servant,
children of Jacob, his chosen ones! (Psalm 105:6)

Why would the Chronicler, writing in postexilic times, change offspring of Abraham to offspring of Israel from a Psalm which is considered to be addressing a post-exilic audience assuring them of the covenant?



1. Tanakh – The Holy Scriptures, The Jewish Publication Society, 1985, notes on pp.1553-1555
2. David Rothstein, The Jewish Study Bible, Oxford University Press, 2004, p. 1745
3. Adele Berlin and Marc Zvi Brettler, The Jewish Study Bible, Oxford University Press, 2004, p. 1399

How many descendants did Abraham give rise to?

In Genesis 22 there is a divine oath that seems to suggest that Abraham’s descendants will be way more numerous than has yet been realize:

Berean Study Bible Genesis 22: 16 and said, “By Myself I have sworn,
declares the LORD, because you have done this thing and have not
withheld your son, your only son, 17 indeed I will greatly bless you,
and I will greatly multiply your seed as the stars of the heavens
and as the sand which is on the seashore
; and your seed shall
possess the gate of their enemies.

A very literal reading would put that number as 10 to the 22nd power (which is the current scientific estimate for both the number of stars in the visible universe and, coincidentally, of the sands of the seashore, according to:

https://tyoutu.be/2-UuWx8zCYw?t=2m30s

Just how numerous are the descendants so far in total since the oath?

And a related question would be whether or not there is any Rabbinic discussion as to whether or not there will be an end to the increase of the number of Jews. In other words, does the oath suggest that the People will continue to multiply forever?

Is Nehemiah’s description of Abraham’s events out of order?

In Nechemia 9, we read a recap of God’s interaction with Avraham:

אֲשֶׁ֤ר בָּחַ֙רְתָּ֙ בְּאַבְרָ֔ם וְהוֹצֵאת֖וֹ מֵא֣וּר כַּשְׂדִּ֑ים וְשַׂ֥מְתָּ שְּׁמ֖וֹ אַבְרָהָֽם׃

וּמָצָ֣אתָ אֶת־לְבָבוֹ֮ נֶאֱמָ֣ן לְפָנֶיךָ֒ וְכָר֨וֹת עִמּ֜וֹ הַבְּרִ֗ית לָתֵ֡ת אֶת־אֶרֶץ֩…לָתֵ֣ת לְזַרְע֑וֹ

Hashem chose Avram
and brought him out of Ur Kasdim
and Changed his name to Avraham
AND found his heart to be loyal
AND established a covenant to give the land…to give it to his descenants

But in Sefer Bereisheet, the last two items seem in different places. The Malbim says that Hashem found Avraham’s heart to be loyal after the 10th of the trials (“עד שאחר כל הנסיונות שעמד בהם ונבחן ונמצא לבבו נאמן עם אלהיו”) which is in Ber 22.

But the covenant (including using the word “brit”) to let Avraham inherit the land and have his descendants inherit the land took place in Ber 12, 13, 15 and 17, before the last 4 tests had been assigned/accomplished. One of those instances is directly after the name change (part of test 6) when Avraham already seems to have been found to be ne’eman/loyal as explained by the Radak on Ber 17:1:

meaning that by fulfillment of this commandment Avram would then be considered as “perfect. Once there would be a visible sign of Avram’s faith and loyalty to His Creator on his body this would act at the same time as the symbol of the covenant between G’d and him (and the Jewish people).

What is the Nechemia order adding or trying to teach by placing the events in the order which it does?

Intro QM representation of Abraham-Lorentz Force

What does the Schrodinger equation look like if you add some term for the Abraham-Lorentz force? I get a self reference term I’m not sure how to handle. I realize this is probably addressed by QED, but I like to build as much as possible from more fundamentals before heading that way. I’m also curious if I encounter meaningful concepts in such an exploration.

Let
$$hat{H}Psi=[(hat{p}-qvec{A})^2+V]Psi=EPsi$$
$$hat{p}=-ihbarnabla$$
$$vec{A}=frac{mu_0e}{4pi r}vec{a}$$

Various potentials, e.g.:
$$V=0,inf(r>r_0), frac{-e^2}{4piepsilon_0r},etc$$

The accelerations should probably be expressed as an operator, correct? Here’s where I’m having trouble.
Figure

$$frac{-i}{hbar}hat{H}=frac{partial}{partial t}$$

So:

$$hat{vec{a}}=frac{-i}{hbar m}hat{H}hat{p}$$

$$hat{H}Psi=[(hat{p}+frac{mu_o}{4pi r}frac{iq}{hbar m}hat{H}hat{p})^2+VPsi]=EPsi$$

Can anything be done here? Perhaps a gauge transformation?

$$vec{A’}=0, V’=V+partialphi/partial t$$

$$nablaphi=-vec{A}$$

Not sure if this improves things. I believe $hat{H}hat{p}$ appears. I don’t think the vector potential can be expressed as the gradient of a potential. There is the suggestion of a third derivative of position with respect to time though which is interesting.