Dynamic multiple approvers in SPD Workflow when rejection could change existing approval tasks

The Environment:

I have an AngularJS application running on a SharePoint Online platform to manage approval of some Business Objects through a SharePoint Designer Workflow. No Developer Sites, any development needs to be done client-side with REST API, CSOM or SharePoint Designer. Also, due to budget, I cannot use third party tools like Nintex or similar, but I’m available to include Angular/Javascript libraries if needed..

The User Case is the approval of “products” to organization managers based on a Product property (organization). This means Product A could require 2 approvers if it’s assigned to 2 organizations, while Product B could only require 1 approval. Product organizations do not require to be unique between each others.

The Requirement:

A requirement has been added to set up approval tasks for a dynamic number of users (managers) who each need to approve for one or more “products” based on some List Item’s field.

There are several conditions:

  1. Since managers are not likely to use SharePoint, the approval/rejection needs to be handled from an email. I have this already covered by including a link on an email/task-notification to a View on my Angular App (which can be a custom ASPX) that runs a JS script to Approve/Reject based on querystring parameters and logged in user. This solutions is already approved by user, no changes needed, just putting this for context.

  2. The workflow must not advance to next logical stage until all managers Approve their tasks.

  3. If a manager Rejects their task, the workflow will go to a “Revision Stage” in which the Initiator will review the item’s data. Since the Rejection happens automatically from the email, it’s responsibility of the Initiator to contact the manager via phone/message/email and get the details

  4. Now, the REAL PROBLEM. When Initiator reviews the information, it may result in:

    a) The number of “products” assigned to any manager might change. Think of this as reassigning the products from one manager to another. This needs to trigger new approval tasks for each affected manager.

    b) A manager might reject all their products, but they need to be reassigned to an existent or a new Manager.

    c) Only if a manager is affected by any of these changes, they need to get a new approval task, otherwise, their given response (if any) remains untouched.

The Problem:

Because it’s SharePoint Online, I don’t have access to any Server-Side development including Timer Jobs and Event Receivers and the only tools I have available are Designer, REST API and CSOM within an AngularJS App.

First, I don’t know how to create the tasks (if needed) for each manager. With a Task Process I cannot catch each individual response and, if I try looping through managers to create task, I cannot do it either because the number is dynamic. Also, I would still need to either Wait for Response on all tasks or Wait for a field in the item to change, but this brings up the next problem described below.

Second, I cannot figure how to handle the “if one rejects, then review information but keep existing tasks alive”. I was thinking of, instead of creating tasks, just manage a field in list items marking them as “Completed” or not; but with this approach I’m concerned for concurrency. Like what would happen if one manager rejects and, while Initiatior is making changes, then another one rejects as well.

If this was On-Prem, I wouldn’t have gone for a Workflow, but for a pseudo-workflow using Event-Receivers, SharePoint Lists and Timer Jobs. I would’ve implemented this with an Item Receiver to watch for changes in the assignment of products to managers and check the status of these assignment for completion in order to send emails. The main workflow would just exist in another list checking a “Status” field in order to simulate the Workflow Stages.

P.S. I would be open to “this is not possible” answer but, I’m looking for suggestions of anything I haven’t tried yet.

Thanks in advance

Since the sun was colder, how could the oceans have been liquid earlier than 2.5 billion years ago?

According to established evolutionary models of the Sun’s history, the energy output of our star during the Archean, from 3.8 to 2.5Gyr ago, would have been insufficient to maintain liquid water on the Earth’s surface. Instead, there are strong independent evidences that, actually, our planet was mainly covered by liquid water oceans, hosting also forms of life, during that remote era.

Gravitational Anomalies in the Solar System? Lorenzo Iorio; International Journal of Modern Physics D · January 2015; DOI: 10.1142/S0218271815300153

Is it true that the sun wasn’t hot enough to support liquid water on the earth until about 2.5 billion years ago? How do we justify thinking that they weren’t frozen?

Could the definition of the Kármán line be described considering an airplane in orbit?

Why not consider the Kármán line as a curved boundary that follows the curvature of the Earth ?

According to Wikipedia’s article about the Kármán line:

The Kármán line is the altitude where the speed necessary to aerodynamically support the airplane’s full weight equals orbital velocity ( assuming wing loading of a typical airplane )…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………The Kármán line is therefore the highest altitude at which orbital speed provides sufficient aerodynamic lift to fly in a straight line that doesn’t follow the curvature of the Earth’s surface.

Suppose for instance that the aerodynamic lift force $F_L$ of the plane would become half of the gravitational force $F_G$ ?

Looking at the expressions of the question:

$$(1) F_L = frac{1}{2}F_G$$

Substituting expression (1) will give a new orbital velocity that is the square root of the former one, so:

the orbital velocity will become about 30 % lower.

Also , the wing loading will become twice as much.

But the height of the Kármán line won’t change and the plane would just follow the curvature of Earth’s surface !

Can this be true ?

How could I make a portal to parallel universes as scientifically realistic as possible?

[Edit: I’m not looking for 100% realism. I’m looking for an explanation as realistic as possible, possible with just few exceptions to physics.]

[Edit 2: In my imagination these worlds are different universes and as such not reachable by travelling far. They are similar but not identical to our universe/earth. Parallel indicates that they kind of overlap with our universe, they are parallel to our world, I like to imagine sheets of paper overlapping, and you can just get to another sheet if you rip a hole in your sheet. Or maybe like in ‘His dark materials’, the universes are here and not here, you’d just need to know how to open a portal.]

I plan to write about several parallel universes, the first being very much like earth including our physics and its restrictions.

Scientists manage to open a portal. My thoughts so far:

  • A huge amount of energy needs to be concentrated on a relatively small area
  • This might be achieved by matter colliding with antimatter
  • There are just the n parallel worlds to which a portal can be opened to, each might require discreet amounts of initial energy to be opened
  • The portal/crack might stay open, get bigger or get smaller and vanish. I think the last option is the most realistic

My questions so far:

  • Would this work as described above?
  • How can it be stablized? My initial idea was that you can put materials through it to stop it from getting smaller, but something like a broomstick would just break or melt and you would need a material that has a high melting point.
  • Does the portal need constant energy to keep from collapsing or would maybe cooling whatever material keeps it in place be enough?
  • Would it be dangerous to be in proximity to it? Would there be radiation?
  • How exactly do the edges of the portal look and behave?
  • Did I miss problems that would appear?
  • Other options or ideas?

In the end it should be possible for humans to walk through the portal without damage.

(Further info:
The other universes are about the same, but have one or two additional elementary particles (similar to ours). So the portal would open to the respective place in the selected world.)

I’d really like to make this as realistically/plausible as possible.
Thanks in advance!

Could the definition of the Kármán line be described considering an airplane in orbit around the Earth?…

This question already has an answer here:

  • Why, at the altitude of the Kármán line, should a plane have to fly in a straight line?

    1 answer

Edit: This question is about the definition of the Kármán line, and it asks for calculations for an airplane in orbit.

According to Wikipedia’s article about the Kármán line:

The Kármán line is the altitude where the speed necessary to aerodynamically support the airplane’s full weight equals orbital velocity ( assuming wing loading of a typical airplane )…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…The Kármán line is therefore the highest altitude at which orbital speed provides sufficient aerodynamic lift to fly in a straight line that doesn’t follow the curvature of the Earth’s surface.

But the FAI (Fédération Aéronautiqe Internationale) that adopted the definition, doesn’t mention any “straight line” in this article about the 100 km atitude boundary for astronautics.

So could not the definition of the Kármán line be better explained by an airplane in orbit around the Earth, rather than by an airplane flying in a straight line ?

And what are the necessary calculations to do so ?

Could I submit an abstract for a conference prior asking my supervisor permission about it?

I would like to submit an abstract for a poster presentation, I’m just worried that if I tell my supervisor submitting, she might say I shouldn’t do it, because she rarely wants me to be away from the office. So I was thinking on submitting the abstract and once I’m accepted telling her I’ve been selected for presenting at that conference. What do you think about it? Would this be a good strategy for attending a conference when having a strict supervisor and close minded supervisor?

P.S Our research is not about any kind of product or patent we’re developing for a company, so no privacy issues apply in there.

Could you spell Dutch according to the German system?

In another thread, I asked if Yiddish was a German dialect. Actually, I think I said “a dialect of German”, but what I really meant was “is it a German dialect in general? In response, some people cited the different spelling system used as a reason it wasn’t a dialect. Of course, I don’t agree with this. The Mennonites have their own spelling system too, but they do that (as the Jews do, especially when they romanize the spelling) to purposely distance themselves from the Standard German.

But all that brings us around to the question of Dutch. I don’t know Dutch, but I can see that it’s pretty close to German. Actually, on a line between English and German, I’d say Dutch is about three-quarters of the way to German. But that’s not my question.

Of course, the Dutch spell their language completely differently. They’re entitled to, because they pronounce it differently. But the English pronounce things differently from the French, and yet we spell many of our Latin words exactly the same as the French do. We just pronounce them differently.

In the other thread, I give some examples to show how, if you wanted to, you could spell Yiddish almost exactly like the Germans, and it would be perfectly understandable. There are vowel shifts, like when the Germans say “au”, the Yiddish is read as “oy”. But the vowel shifts are mostly systematic, so you just follow the local convention. I add some accents over the vowels when there is an ambiguity in the vowel shift, but it ends up looking just like German.

And so I’m wondering: how hard would it be to do the same for Dutch? Like, they say “hoos” and write “huis”, but they could just as well write “haus” and still pronounce it as “hoos”. Or could they? In other words, would the shifts be systemic and predictable, so that it would make perfect sense to transport the German spellings over?

I hope I’ve made the question clear and I’m interested in what people would think who know both German and Dutch.