how educated muslim woman served nation in limitations of Islam? [on hold]

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Sotah waters for a raped woman

A woman accused of being a Sotah (had intentional seclusion with a man she was warned against), is now forbidden to her husband until she drinks the Sotah waters. If she committed adultery, she’ll die after drinking.

Let’s say the woman was raped while in seclusion, would she die if she drank the waters?

This question is motivated by the Maharal to Esther 4:16 and Penei Yehoshua to Kesubos 51b who both say a woman who had intentional seclusion with a man, and was raped, is forever forbidden to her husband. They prove this from Esther, who intentionally secluded herself with Achashverosh, and was thus forbidden to Mordechai, even though relations with him weren’t with intent. If we take their opinion into account, the question would then be how far to take what they’re saying.

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how educated muslim woman served nation in limitations of Islam?

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Are there conditions on a Muslim man marrying a non-Muslim woman? [duplicate]

This question already has an answer here:

  • Can a Muslim man marry a non-Muslim (and non-Ahl-al-Kitab) woman?

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  • Nikah with a Non-Muslim

    1 answer

I know that interfaith marriage is allowed by Muslim man to non-Muslim woman from the people of the book.

What I want to know, are there any conditions set by the mujtahids on this type of marriage, i.e., whether the Christian belief should be of a specific type. Like for example, if a non-Muslim woman believes in trinity, would the marriage with a Muslim man still be allowed.

Please, answers with reference either Hadith or authoritative books from Mujtahids.

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If a woman cannot have children, can she marry?

I’ve been doing some research, and I found a lot of references to the rule that if a marriage lasts 10 years and does not produce any children, the couple must divorce and remarry in a new attempt to have children. This raised three questions in my mind, which I was unable to find the answers to despite research attempts:

  1. Is this still a rule practiced in modern times? If not, when did this change (and what justification was given for the change)?

  2. In the past, one could only guess if they were sterile or just hadn’t yet had a child for whatever reason. But now we have science which can, in certain cases, confirm that it is impossible for a woman to have children. (The most extreme example: if she has had a hysterectomy.).
    Is there a difference between having trouble conceiving and likely being infertile, and knowing for an absolute fact that you cannot have children?

  3. If a woman is entirely certain that she cannot have children, does that mean she cannot marry? Or that she may, but the marriage can only last 10 years (dependent upon the answer to #1).

(This seems silly though, as the 10 year period seems to exist to give enough time for the couple to try to conceive, and in this case they already know going into it that they can’t. Of course the woman should disclose this fact to her future husband, but producing children is the husband’s responsibility and that he flouts Jewish law if he has none. So would such a woman be barred from marrying because she would prevent her husband from carrying out his duty to have children? (Or could/should she marry a non-Jew, who has no such restrictions? Or could adoption fulfill this requirement?) I also read that the primary purpose of marriage is not procreation, but love and companionship and partnership for the married couple. These two ideas seem to be at odds in the case of a woman who cannot have children.

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Does one woman can open and allow to touch other woman’s her breast ??it is halal or haram?

As if a girl open up her breast in front of other girl and allow her close best friend to touched her breast?? It is halal or haraam?

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Does the oral contraceptive pill “age” a woman’s cervix prematurely?

Well, I heard an interesting one tonight. My wife passed on that on a blog discussing contraceptive use, someone posted a link to a site stating that taking Ortho Tri Cyclen, an oral contraceptive, “ages” the cervix prematurely.

The implication was that if a younger woman takes the pill, her cervix could end up being of an “age” of an older woman, thus preventing pregnancy when desired (and when taking oral contraceptives is stopped).

I had a heck of a time trying to research this on my own.

  • I started with googling “ortho tri cyclen” to find out more and examine side effects. I could only find it mentioned on the Wikipedia page for oral contraceptive formulations but no main site with side effects.
  • I looked at the pages for the two types of birth control pill (progestogen-only and combined) and didn’t see anything like this listed in the side effects.

In googling “the pill ages the cervix”, the top link directed me to the potential source of this claim, a page on a site called WOOMB, World Organization Ovulation Method Billings (emphasis mine):

The cervix undergoes a natural process of development and ageing. The area of the cervix given over to the mucus secreting crypts gradually diminishes from maturity. The number of S crypts decreases from teenage. They are first replaced by L crypts starting at the base of the cervix. Later G crypts replace the L crypts…

“The L replaces S and G replaces L transformations are partially reversed by changes during pregnancy, but they are partially accelerated by the Pill. These circumstances may be simply stated by the expression: a pregancy rejuvenates the cervix by 2-3 years, but for each year the Pill is taken, the cervix ages by an extra year.” (“The Discovery of Different Types of Cervical Mucus and the Billings Ovulation Method”, Professor Erik Odeblad, Bulletin of the Natural Family Council of Victoria, ISSN 0321-7567, Vol 21 No 3 September 1994, pp3-35).

Following the link to Professor Erik Odeblad’s work, I was surprised to find what I considered a much more modest statement (emphasis mine):

The study of the effects of contraceptive pills on the cervix is a difficult task. A considerable amount of work is required for each patient and the time required spans many years, up to 10 years or more. Many women also want to change to other pills or to other methods of contraception, or perhaps now want to become pregnant. It also happens that some pills are withdrawn from the market. To these difficulties are added the normal age changes in the cervix and the dynamic processes which are of constant occurrence. After 3 and up to 15 months of contraceptive pill use, there is a greater loss of the S crypt cells than can be replaced.

Read the quote yourself, but there seems to be no obvious connection (at least in that quote, which is what Woomb itself chose to reproduce) made between S crypt cells, the “age” of the cervix, or the ability to become/stay pregnant.

Lastly, here’s a blog post that reiterates the above and might be something similar to what caused my wife to bring this up.

Is there evidence supporting the claim that the oral contraceptive pill (or some specific formulation) “age” the cervix prematurely such that the chances for pregnancy are reduced or eliminated even when no longer taking contraceptives?

As an aside, I’m a former Catholic and very familiar with natural family planning (NFP), of which the Billings method is a type. I find it intriguing that this claim would originate with a natural family planning researcher, as these methods tend to be associated with Catholics/Christians who want to avoid pregnancy while not disobeying the doctrine to which they subscribe.

In Catholic culture, natural family planning is not often pitched as simply that — avoid pregnancy while not sinning; there tends to be a lot of preaching against other forms of contraception to make them less appealing, probably because NFP involves long(er) periods of abstinence.

I simply add this to shed light on what I think might be a side agenda of various natural family planning groups: to downplay alternative methods (condoms reduce sensation, the pill ages the cervix, etc.) to keep enticement down as much as possible for religious populations.

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Who and why is the woman in Tomoe’s arms right before he goes on search of Dragon King’s eye?

In Kamisama Kiss, who and why is the woman in Tomoe’s arms right before he goes on search of Dragon King’s eye?

This happens when Nanami first goes in past and sees Tomoe caring for the “beautiful woman”.

Is the woman Yukiji? If yes, why does he care for Yukiji as if she is Nanami? Can’t he differentiate between the two?

I have only watched the anime and not the manga. Spoilers are fine for me.

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Pretty woman – is it a test or a Mitzvah

The sources talk a lot about the procedure of “אשת יפת תואר” (like Rambam Melachim 8,2 and on).

So for the soldiers, is the Pretty Woman allowed but “bad” (like “Patur but Ossur”, see Rashi’s consequences to Ben Sorer Umoreh) or is it a Mitvzah to follow the procedure as it’s only allowed for the most pious Tzaddikim?

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Why a married woman is exempt from honoring her parents?

  1. Although the wife should listen to the husband and make her best to please him, it is not a Mitzvah at all, and there are no DeOraytah obligations on the wife toward her husband (Rambam Ishut 22-24). The husband has no halachic control over his wife, besides a list of certain Melachot but those are DeRabanan monetary obligation, and she’s free to exempt herself from all of them by claiming “איני ניזונת ואיני עושה”. (I hope this point is agreed on לכו”ע).
    Also raising kids is not a Mitzvah at all (for women at least), and she can not get away by “being engaged in another Mitzvah”.

  2. The Mitzvah of honoring parents is one of the MOST stringent DeOraytahs.

  3. THe Gemmorah in Kiddushin (30b) brings Safra (Vayikra 19,3) explaining the Ptur of married women from this Mitzvah by simply mentioning that “רשות אחרים עליה”.:

“”איש”– אין לי אלא איש. אשה מנין? תלמוד לומר “תיראו”– הרי כאן שנים. אם כן למה נאמר “איש”? אלא שהאיש סיפוקו בידו והאשה אין ספוקה בידה מפני שיש רשות אחרים עליה.

This opinion is indisputable and not discussed by the Gemmorah.

I am stumbled, what רשות does the husband have over his wife, to exempt her from such an important Mitzvah as honoring and respecting her parents?

A bonus question: why “אחרים” and not “בעל” and who are the “others”?

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